Mathematics

If $$f(x) =\displaystyle  \underset{1}{\overset{x}{\int}} \dfrac{\tan^{-1} t}{t} dt \, \, \forall \in R$$, then the value of $$f(e^2) - f \left (\dfrac{1}{e^2}\right) $$is 


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$$\pi$$


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Single Correct Medium Published on 17th 09, 2020
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