Mathematics

If $$f$$ is strictly $$\uparrow \uparrow $$ $$f^{n}\ i\ n\ [0,\infty)$$, then this  relation is    $$\int _{0}^{n}f(x)dx\le\sum _{ k=1 }^{ n }{ f\left( k \right)  } \le \int _{ 1 }^{ n+1 }{ f\left( x \right)  } dx$$.    ?


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